Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
x+1 is a factor of f(x) because [tex]f(x)=(x+1)(2x^2-5x+12)[/tex], which can be easily found via polynomial division or some other strategy. Because [tex]f(x)=(x+1)(p(x))[/tex], where p(x) is a polynomial without remainder, x+1 is a factor of f(x).
